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Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true? 
A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. 
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. 
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes. 
D. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes. 
Answer: C

What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG? 
A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system. 
B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs. 
C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient. 
D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency. 
Answer: C

A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it. 
What is the cause of this issue? 
A．The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client. 
B．The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. 
C．The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID. 
D．The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. 
Answer: A

A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. 
Which deployment model meets this requirement? 
A. Autonomous 
B. Mobility express 
C. SD-Access wireless 
D. Local mode 
Answer: B

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port? 
A. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514 
B. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514 
C. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514 
D. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514 
Answer: A

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There are complex services being used with your Dynamics 365 instance in which you own and manage the software applications as well as the data hosted in Azure. You need to determine which type of cloud service model is being used by your organization. 
Which cloud service model is being used? 
A. platform as a service (PaaS) 
B. infrastructure as a service (IaaS) 
C. software as a service (SaaS) 
Answer: A

A medical clinic uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The clinic wants to rapidly implement a solution that optimizes coordination of care for patients. 
You need to recommend a solution for the clinic. 
What should you recommend? 
A. Canvas app 
B. Portal 
C. Healthcare Accelerator 
D. Insights 
Answer: C

A company uses Microsoft Exchange Online. 
Sales team members want to use Microsoft Outlook to view items that were created in Dynamics 365 Sales. 
Which three components are synchronized between Dynamics 365 Sales and Outlook? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 
A. Tasks 
B. Appointments 
C. Phone calls 
D. Accounts 
E. Contacts 
Answer: ABE

You are discussing the benefits of hosting a Dynamics 365 development sandbox on Microsoft Azure. 
What are two benefits? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 
A. ability to adhere to static cost requirements 
B. a higher level of system availability in the event of a disaster 
C. ability to easily scale for increased growth 
D. physical control over server hardware 
Answer: BC

A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. You plan to use Power Apps to create a customized app that allows sales team members to enter data for customer, leads, and opportunities. 
Sales team members must be able to enter the information from desktops, laptops, tablets, and mobile devices. All salespeople need access to the same forms, views and reports. 
What is the minimum number of Power Apps that you must create? 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 
Answer: A

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Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? 
A. ipv6 address dhcp 
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 
C. ipv6 address autoconfig 
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local 
Answer: C

Which 802.11 frame type is association response? 
A. management 
B. protected frame 
C. action 
D. control 
Answer: A

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? 
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. 
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgement packets. 
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. 
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits. 
Answer: A

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? 
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. 
B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. 
C. The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. 
D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor. 
Answer: C

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? 
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. 
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. 
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. 
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. 
Answer: C

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A development team plans to enhance functionality of an existing application by changing several user interface rules. The team would like to pilot the enhancements to a small group of users before rolling the changes out to the entire user base. 
What approach maximizes reuse and maintainability? 
A. Place the updated rules into a new minor version of the ruleset and include the new ruleset version in a new application. 
B. Place the updated rules into a new ruleset and include the new ruleset in a new application. 
C. Place the updated rules into a new ruleset and include the new ruleset in a new version of the application. 
D. Place the updated rules into a new minor version of the ruleset and include the new ruleset version in a new version of the application. 
Answer: A

You are creating a case type to process job applications for a large corporation. Job applications for security positions require a physical assessment in addition to the standard criminal background check. The physical assessment can occur before or after the background check. 
How do you configure a case type to achieve the required behavior? 
A. Create a process for the physical assessment that is followed by a process for the background check. 
B. Create a process for the physical assessment that is parallel to the background check process. 
C. Create a process on one stage for the background check and a process on another stage for the physical assessment. 
D. Create a process for the background check and an optional process for the physical assessment. 
Answer: A

An order fulfillment case type allows a customer to update user profile information during the order placement stage. 
The user profile consists of the following three pages: 
– Account ID and password 
– Customer contact information 
– A list of open orders with status of each order 
How do you configure the case type to allow customers to update any of the user profile pages at any time during case processing? 
A. Add a set of optional actions to the case workflow. 
B. Add an alternate stage to the case life cycle. 
C. Add an optional process to the case workflow. 
D. Add a button for each profile page to each assignment. 
Answer: A

An organization has two lines of business: selling books for children and reselling college textbooks. The division selling books for children can use the same basic user interface (UI) as the division reselling textbooks with the exception of the payment methods. 
How do you apply the Situational Layer CakeTM in this scenario? 
A. Place the UI rules in the base layer, and create a new layer for the payment rules for both lines of business. 
B. Place the UI rules and generic payment method rules in the base layer, and create a new layer for the division-specific payment rules. 
C. Place the UI rules in the base layer, and create a parallel base layer for the payments rules. 
D. Place the UI rules in the base layer, and create a new layer for the payment rule for each division. 
Answer: B

With Pega’s Situational Layer CakeTM approach, how do you configure a regional variation for Human Resources (HR) time off cases? 
A. Create a rule for the variation and add the rule to the common layer of the application. 
B. Create a rule for the variation and add it to a secondary common application layer. 
C. Create a rule for the variation and add the rule to the layer for the region. 
D. Create a rule for the variation and replace the existing HR time off rule in the application common layer. 
Answer: B

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CCNP Service Provider and CCIE Service Provider Core Exam 350-501 SPCOR Overview

The Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies v1.0 (SPCOR 350-501) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Service Provider, CCIE Service Provider, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Service Provider Core certifications.This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core service provider network technologies including core architecture, services, networking, automation, quality of services, security, and network assurance. 

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1.Refer to the exhibit.

P3 and PE4 are at the edge of the service provider core and serve as ABR routers. Aggregation areas are on either side of the core.Which statement about the architecture is true?A. To support seamless MPLS, the BGP route reflector feature must be disabled.B. If each area is running its own IGP, BGP must provide an end-to-end MPLS LSP.C. If each area is running its own IGP, the ABR routers must redistribute the IGP routing table into BGP.D. To support seamless MPLS, TDP must be used as the label protocol.Answer: B2.Which component is similar to an EVPN instance?A. router distinguisherB. MPLS labelC. IGP router IDD. VRFAnswer: D3.Why do Cisco MPLS TE tunnels require a link-state routing protocol?A. The link-state database provides segmentation by area, which improves the path-selection process.B. The link-state database provides a data repository from which the tunnel endpoints can dynamically select a source ID.C. Link-state routing protocols use SPF calculations that the tunnel endpoints leverage to implement the tunnel.D. The tunnel endpoints use the link-state database to evaluate the entire topology and determine the best path.Answer: D4.Refer to the exhibit.

BGPsec is implemented on R1, R2, R3, and R4. BGP peering is established between neighboring autonomous systems.Which statement about implementation is true?A. BGP updates from the iBGP peers are appended with a community of local-as.B. BGP updates from the all BGP peers are appended with a community of no-export.C. BGP updates from the eBGP peers are appended with an additional AS path value that is statically set by the domain administrator.D. BGP updates from the eBGP peers are appended with a BGPsec attribute sequence that includes a public key hash and digital signature.Answer: D5.You are configuring MPLS traffic-engineering tunnels in the core.Which two ways exist for the tunnel path across the core? (Choose two.)A. The dynamic path option is supported only with IS-IS.B. Tunnels can be configured with dynamic path or explicitly defined path.C. A zero bandwidth tunnel is not a valid option.D. The bandwidth statement creates a “hard” reservation on the link.E. Tunnel links inherit IGP metrics by default unless overridden.Answer: BE6.Which configuration mode do you use to apply the mpls ldp graceful-restart command in IOS XE Software?A. MPLS LDP neighborB. interfaceC. MPLSD. globalAnswer: D

Requirements for New CCNP Service Provider and CCIE Service Provider Certification

To earn CCNP Service Provider, you pass two exams: a core exam and a service provider concentration exam of your choice. And now every exam in the CCNP Service Provider program earns an individual Specialist certification, so you get recognized for your accomplishments along the way.
●The core exam focuses on your knowledge of service provider infrastructure. The core exam is also the qualifying exam for CCIE Service Provider certification. Passing this exam helps toward earning both of these certifications.●Concentration exams focus on emerging and industry-specific topics such as advanced routing, VPN services, and automation. You can prepare for concentration exams by taking their corresponding Cisco training courses.

Achieving CCIE Service Provider certification proves your skills with complex service provider solutions. To earn CCIE Service Provider certification, you pass two exams: a qualifying exam that covers core service provider technologies, and a hands-on lab exam that covers service provider technologies through the entire network lifecycle, from designing and deploying to operating and optimizing.
Between February 24, 2020 and April 27, 2020, to earn CCIE Service Provider, you must pass the 350-501 SPCOR exam and the CCIE Service Provider 4.1 lab exam. As of April 27, 2020, the CCIE Service Provider v5.0 lab exam will go live.

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Achieving Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification proves your skills in developing and maintaining applications built on Cisco platforms. To earn DevNet Associate certification, you pass one exam that covers the fundamentals of software development and design for Cisco platforms.
DevNet Associate Exam v1.0 (DEVASC 200-901) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of software development and design including understanding and using APIs, Cisco platforms and development, application development and security, and infrastructure and automation.

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1.Which two statements describe the advantages of using a version control system? (Choose two.)A. It allows for branching and merging so that different tasks are worked on in isolation before they are merged into a feature or master branch.B. It provides tooling to automate application builds and infrastructure provisioning.C. It allows multiple engineers to work against the same code and configuration files and mange differences and conflicts.D. It provides a system to track User Stories and allocate to backlogs.E. It allows developers to write effective unit tests.Answer: AD2.On which port does NETCONF operate by default?A. 23B. 443C. 822D. 830Answer: D3.Which product provides network controller-level management features?A. Cisco ISEB. Cisco DNA CenterC. Cisco UCS ManagerD. Cisco NX-OSAnswer: B4.Refer to the exhibit.

A process on the host wants to access the service running inside this Docker container.Which port is used to make a connection?A. only outbound connections between 3000 and 5000 are possibleB. port 3000C. any port between 3000 and 5000D. port 5000Answer: C5.Which description of a default gateway is true?A. It is a security feature that denies certain traffic.B. It is a device that receives IP packets that have no explicit next-hop in the routing table.C. It is a feature that translates between public and private addresses.D. It is a device that receives Layer 2 frames with an unknown destination address.Answer: B6.Which two statements are true about Cisco UCS Manager, Cisco UCS Director, or Cisco Intersight APIs? (Choose two.)A. UCS Manager uses JSON to encode API interactions and utilizes Base64-encoded credentials in the HTTP header for authentication.B. UCS Director API interactions can be XML- or JSON-encoded and require an API key in the HTTP header for authentication.C. Cisco Intersight uses XML to encode API interactions and requires an API key pair for authentication.D. UCS Manager API interactions are XML-encoded and require a cookie in the method for authentication.E. Cisco Intersight API interactions can be encoded in XML or JSON and require an API key in the HTTP header for authentication.Answer: BD

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The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies v1.0 (ENCOR 350-401) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, CCIE Enterprise Wireless, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core enterprise network technologies including dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security and automation.

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1.What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system.B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs.C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.Answer: C2.A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP.Which deployment model meets this requirement?A. AutonomousB. Mobility expressC. SD-Access wirelessD. Local modeAnswer: B3.Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.D. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.Answer: C4.On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?A. LISPB. IS-ISC. Cisco TrustSecD. VXLANAnswer: D5.When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?A. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514B. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514C. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514D. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514Answer: A6.A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it.What is the cause of this issue?A. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.B. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client.C. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID.D. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID.Answer: A

Requirements For CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, CCIE Enterprise Wireless Certifications

1.To earn CCNP Enterprise, you pass two exams: a core exam and an enterprise concentration exam of your choice. And every exam in the CCNP Enterprise program earns an individual Specialist certification, so you get recognized for your accomplishments along the way.
●The core exam focuses on your knowledge of enterprise infrastructure including dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation. The core exam is also the qualifying exam for CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure and CCIE Enterprise Wireless certifications. Passing this exam helps toward earning any or all of these certifications.●Concentration exams focus on emerging and industry-specific topics such as network design, SD-WAN, wireless, and automation. You can prepare for concentration exams by taking corresponding Cisco training courses.

2.Between February 24, 2020 and April 27, 2020, to earn CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, you must pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam and the CCIE Routing and Switching lab exam. As of April 27, 2020, the CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure v1.0 lab exam will go live.
3.Between February 24, 2020 and April 27, 2020, to earn CCIE Enterprise Wireless, you must pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam and the CCIE Wireless v3.1 lab exam. As of April 27, 2020, the CCIE Enterprise Wireless v1.0 lab exam will go live.

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NSE 7 Certification Description – NSE 7 Network Security Architect

The NSE 7 Network Security Architect designation recognizes your advanced skills ans ability to deploy, administer, and troubleshoot Fortinet security solutions. Network and security professionals who are involved in the design, administration, and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions can choose NSE 7 Certification to attempt. To obtain certification, you must pass at least one Fortinet NSE 7 exam. NSE 7 certification is valid for two years from the date of completion.  

Availabe Exams You Can Choose To Take For Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall

Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.0Exam series: NSE7_EFW-6.0Number of questions: 30Time allowed to complete: 60 minutesLanguage: English and JapaneseProduct version: FortiOS 6.0Status: Registration ends March 31, 2020
Fortinet NSE 7 – Enterprise Firewall 6.2Exam series: NSE7_EFW-6.2Number of questions: 30Time allowed to complete: 60 minutesLanguage: English and Japanese Product version: FortiOS 6.2Status: Available

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1.Which two configuration settings change the behavior for content-inspected traffic while FortiGate is in conserve mode? (Choose two.)A. IPS failopenB. mem failopenC. AV failopenD. UTM failopenAnswer: AC
2.Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of a diagnose command.

Based on the output, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)A. Anti-replay is enabled.B. DPD is disabled.C. Remote gateway IP is 10.200.4.1.D. Quick mode selectors are disabled.Answer: AC
3.Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a diagnose command.

Which two statements regarding the output in the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)A. FortiGate will probe 121.111.236.179every fifteen minutes for a response.B. Servers with a negative TZ value are experiencing a service outage.C. Servers with the D flag are considered to be down.D. FortiGate used 209.222.147.36as the initial server to validate its contract.Answer: AD
4.Which two statements about application layer test commands are true? (Choose two.)A. They are used to filter real-time debugs.B. They display real-time application debugs.C. Some of them can be used to restart an application.D. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.Answer: CD
5.Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSP adjacency? (Choose three.)A. OSPF costs matchB. OSPF peer IDs matchC. Hello and dead intervals matchD. OSPF IP MTUs matchE. IP addresses are in the same subnetAnswer: CDE
6.Which two statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.)A. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate.B. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate.C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision history.D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation.Answer: AD

Related Exam

NSE7_ATP-2.5 Fortinet NSE 7 – Advanced Threat Protection

300-510 SPRI exam is a new Cisco exam related to CCNP Service Provider and Cisco Certified Specialist – Service Provider Advanced Routing Implementation certifications,Passcert team cares about your exam preparation, now you can get the latest and valid Cisco 300-510 SPRI Exam study guides to study for your exam and pass your 300-510 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions v1.0 Exam successfully.

What is 300-510 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions v1.0 Exam?

The Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions v1.0 (SPRI 300-510) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Service Provider and Cisco Certified Specialist – Service Provider Advanced Routing Implementation certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing service provider advanced routing technologies including routing protocols, policy language, MPLS, and segment routing. 

What Topics Are Covered In The CCNP Service Provider 300-510 Test?

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. Here we list the general topics, for complete guideline, you can refer to https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/s/spri-exam-topics

View 300-510 Free Questions Online Which Are Parts Of Passcert Complete 300-510 SPRI Exam Dumps

1.Refer to the exhibit.

Which tree does multicast traffic follow?A. shared treeB. MDT defaultC. source treeD. MDT voiceAnswer: B
2.Refer to the exhibit. 

After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a neighbor relationship.Which reason for the problem is the most likely?A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.B. The two routers have the same area ID.C. The two routers have the same network ID.D. The two routers have different IS-types.Answer: C
3.Refer to the exhibit.

Which effect of this configuration is true?A. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 seconds and the hold timer to 240 seconds.B. It sets the keepalive timer to 30 milliseconds and the hold timer to 240 millisecondsC. It sets the hold timer to 30 milliseconds and the keepalive timer to 240 millisecondsD. It sets the hold timer to 30 seconds and the keepalive timer to 240 secondsAnswer: A
4.Refer to the exhibit. 

A network operator is working to filter routes from being advertised that are covered under an aggregate announcement. The receiving router of the aggregate announcement block is still getting some of the more specific routes plus the aggregate.Which configuration change ensures that only the aggregate is announced now and in the future if other networks are to be added?A. Configure the summary-only keyword on the aggregate commandB. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to drop instead of suppress-routeC. Filter the routes on the receiving routerD. Set each specific route in the AGGRO policy to remove instead of suppress-routeAnswer: A
5.Refer to the exhibit. 

A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary when available.Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1Answer: C

Requirements To Get CCNP Service Provider Certification

To earn CCNP Service Provider, you pass two exams: a core exam and a service provider concentration exam of your choice. And now every exam in the CCNP Service Provider program earns an individual Specialist certification, so you get recognized for your accomplishments along the way.
The core exam focuses on your knowledge of service provider infrastructure. The core exam is also the qualifying exam for CCIE Service Provider certification. Passing this exam helps toward earning both of these certifications.
Concentration exams focus on emerging and industry-specific topics such as advanced routing, VPN services, and automation. You can prepare for concentration exams by taking their corresponding Cisco training courses.

Adobe Certified Expert-Adobe Experience Manager Architect AD0-E104 exam is a required test for Adobe Experience Manager Architect certification. Passcert new released Adobe certification AD0-E104 study guidesare valuable for you to pass the test. Adobe Experience Manager Architect Certification demonstrates to the marketplace that you’re able to perform a job role using Adobe’s leading creative solutions.

AD0-E104 Information-Adobe Experience Manager Architect

Adobe Experience Manager Architect AD0-E104 exam information is helpful for you to understand the test well. 

Number of Questions: 60

Time limit: 120 minutes

Format: Multiple choice, multiple select

Language: English

Passing score: 550

AD0-E104 Topics-ACE Adobe Experience Manager Architect

ACE Adobe Experience Manager Architect AD0-E104 exam topics cover the following sections. 

Section 1: Business Requirements 25%

Section 2: Architecture and Design 40%

Section 3: Configuration and Deployment 22%

Section 4: System Maintenance 13%

Share ACE AD0-E104 Dumps for Reference

There are 60 questions and answers in Adobe Certified Expert-Adobe Experience Manager Architect AD0-E104 dumps, which can help you test the above exam topics. Share some ACE AD0-E104 dumps below. 
1.An implementation needs to perform user-specific JCR read and write operations in a secured way.Which JCR session should be used?A. Resource ResolverB. Sling RequestC. Administrative LoginD. Workspace ManagerAnswer: D
2.A client needs to roll back published pages to a previous version in instances where content errors were uncovered. Previous versions of every published page should be made available for the authors to roll back if needed.Which solution should an Architect recommend?A. Create editable template to autosave page versioningB. Modify the Page Activation workflow to include a versioning stepC. Restore individual page versions from the AEM backup fileD. Update the dispatcher.any file to force versioning of all pagesAnswer: B
3.A customer wants to pre-define the set of components that page authors can change when authoring a page. Which configuration should the Architect recommend?A. Add authors to administrators groupB. Use allowedPaths properties on a templateC. Use editable templates and policiesD. Add components to the general groupAnswer: C
4.What are two supported methods of querying the AEM data store? (Choose two.)A. noSQL QueriesB. SQL1C. XPathD. QueryBuilder APIsE. JCR Query TraversalAnswer: CD
5.Modifications are made in the content structure of a blueprint. After a standard rollout, the location of the pages has changed and are lost in the live copy. Which configuration should an Architect create to resolve this issue?A. PageMoveAction after the standard rolloutB. LiveSyncAction before the standard rolloutC. PageMoveAction before the standard rolloutD. LiveSyncAction after the standard rolloutAnswer: D